2013年11月30日星期六

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Exam Code: Maya12.A
Exam Name: Autodesk (Maya 2012 Certified Associate Examination)
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Exam Code: I40-420
Exam Name: IFPUG (Certified Function Point Specialist )
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Total Q&A: 249 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which category (ies) of data entities is (are) usually identified to satisfy the Functional User
Requirements?
A. Business data
B. Reference data
C. Code data
D. Both A and B
Answer: D

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NO.2 An EI is defined as:
A. an elementary process that processes data sent from outside the application boundary
B. control information sent from outside the user view
C. an elementary process that processes data or control information sent from outside the application's
boundary
D. All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following is NOT an example of the purpose of a function point count?
A. To enable comparison of functionality delivered by two applications
B. To determine maintenance support cost per function point
C. To understand the percentage of lines of code that is being reused across three different applications
D. To determine the effort and duration of a development project
Answer: C

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NO.4 "Requirements specifically requested by the user to complete an elementary process" defines which of
the following terms?
A. Control information
B. Processing logic
C. Maintain
D. User identifiable
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following defines the purpose of a count?
A. Provides an answer to a business question, and it is the business question that determines the
purpose
B. Influences the positioning of the application between the software under review and the surrounding
software
C. Influences the type of FP count to answer the business problem under investigation
D. Provides an input to the estimation process needed to determine the level of effort required to develop
the first release of an application
Answer: A

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NO.6 An example of the purpose of an FP count is to provide:
A. input to the estimation process needed to determine the level of effort to develop the first release of an
application
B. a comparison of functionality delivered by two different suppliers' packages
C. determine the size of an application as part of the organization's effort to determine the size of its
software portfolio
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following statements regarding the counting scope is true?
A. It defines the set of Functional User Requirements to be included in the FP count
B. It always includes more than one application
C. It determines the purpose of the applications being counted
D. It defines a (sub) set of the modules being sized
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is a user identifiable group of logically related data or control information referenced by the
application, but maintained within the boundary of another application?
A. An ILF
B. An IIF
C. An EIF
D. An ELF
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following statements regarding functional size measurement is true?
A. Early functional size measurements can never change during design and coding phase
B. It is quite normal to identify additional functionality that was not specified in the original requirements in
the form of scope creep
C. It is not necessary to update the application functional size upon completion of an enhancement.
D. Both B and C
Answer: B

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NO.10 When counting DETs which of the following rules apply?
A. Count a DET for each recursive field on the ILF or EIF
B. Count a DET for each piece of data in an ILF or EIF required by the user to establish a relationship with
another ILF or EIF
C. Count a DET for each repeating field that is identical in format
D. Count a DET for each field that appears more than once in an ILF or EIF
Answer: B

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NO.11 Control information is defined as data that:
A. defines an elementary process of the application being counted
B. influences an elementary process of the application being counted
C. controls an elementary process of the application being counted
D. does not influence an elementary process of the application being counted
Answer: B

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NO.12 What is an elementary process?
A. The smallest unit of activity that is meaningful to the developer
B. The largest unit of activity that is meaningful to the user
C. The smallest unit of activity that is meaningful to the user
D. The largest unit of activity that is meaningful to the developer
Answer: C

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NO.13 The primary intent of an EI is to maintain:
A. One or more ILFs or alter the behavior of the application
B. One or more ILFs
C. One or more EIFs or alter the behavior of the application
D. One or more EIFs
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following is an attribute used to represent relationships of one entity to another.?
A. Primary key
B. Secondary key
C. Foreign key
D. Domestic key
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following statements about an External Input is true?
A. Has the primary intent to maintain one or more ILFs
B. An elementary process to hold data or control information from outside the boundary
C. Has the primary intent to alter the behavior of a transaction
D. Has the primary intent to reference one or more EIFs
Answer: A

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NO.16 What is true about conversion functionality?
A. Transactional or data functions provided to convert data and /or provide other user specified
conversion requirements
B. Exists only during the development or enhancement of an application
C. Conversion functionality is outside the scope of FP counting
D. Both A and B
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which of the following is NOT true of a boundary?
A. It encloses the logical data maintained by the application
B. It is the physical interface between the software under study and its users
C. It is dependent on the user's external business view of the application and is independent of technical
and/or implementation considerations
D. It defines what is external to the application
Answer: B

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NO.18 What is a (are) valid example(s) of code data?
A. Substitution data
B. Static data
C. Valid values
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding an application functional size (FS)?
A. It provides a measure of the functionalities that an application provides to the user
B. It is never updated after the initial application installation
C. It is associated with an application's lifecycle
D. Both A and C
Answer: D

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NO.20 An application FP count is defined as:
A. a measure of the current functions the application provides the user
B. the initial development project FP count
C. an enhancement project that alters the applications functions
D. the activity of applying this International Standard to measure the functional size of an application
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 040-444
Exam Name: ACSM (ACSM Registered Clinical Exercise Physiologist)
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Total Q&A: 370 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 .Standard sites for the measurement of skinfolds include the
A. Medial thigh.
B. Biceps.
C. Infrailiac.
D. Forearm.
Answer: B

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NO.2 .Which of the following will increase stability?
A. Lowering the center of gravity.
B. Raising the center of gravity.
C. Decreasing the base of support.
D. Moving the center of gravity farther from the edge bf the base of support.
Answer: A

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NO.3 .Who first described that a body immersed in fluid is buoyed up with a force equal to the
weight of the displaced fluid?
A. Einstein.
B. Freud.
C. Whitehead.
D. Archimedes.
Answer: D

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NO.4 .Functions of bone include all of the following EXCEPT
A. Support for the body.
B. Protection of organs and tissues.
C. Production of red blood cells.
D. Production of force.
Answer: D

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NO.5 .In second-class lever,
A. The Axis is located between the effort force and the resistance.
B. The resistance is located between the effort force and the axis.
C. The effort force is located between the resistance and the axis.
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.6 .Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the "power position" used for lifting with proper
body mechanics?
A. Shoulders slouched.
B. Back straight.
C. Body bent forward from the hips.
D. Knees slightly bent.
Answer: A

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NO.7 .Which of the following is considered to be a "balland-socket" joint?
A. Ankle.
B. Elbow.
C. Knee.
D. Hip.
Answer: D

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NO.8 .rteries are large-diameter vessels that carry blood away from the heart. As they course through
the body, they progressively decrease in size until they become
A. Arterioles.
B. Anastomoses.
C. Venules.
D. Veins.
Answer: A

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NO.9 .The intervertebral disks have which of the following characteristics?
A. Calcified outer ring.
B. Gelatinous inner nucleus portion.
C. Gray matter surrounding the neural cell bodies.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.10 .A standard site for the measurement of circumfer- ences is the
A. Abdomen.
B. Neck.
C. Wrist.
D. Ankle.
Answer: A

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NO.11 .The arm is capable of performing all of the following motions EXCEPT
A. Flexion.
B. Abduction.
C. Inversion.
D. Supination.
Answer: C

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NO.12 .The law of inertia
A. States that a body at rest tends to remain at rest, whereas a body in motion tends to con-tinue
to stay in motion with consistent speed and in the same direction unless acted on by an outside
force
B. States that the velocity of a body is changed only when acted on by an additional force
C. States that the driving force of the body is doubled and that the rate of acceleration is also
doubled.
D. States that the production of any force will create another force that will be opposite and equal
to the first force.
Answer: A

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NO.13 .In the organization of skeletal muscle, the muscle cell contains the contractile proteins.
Which of the following is a contractile protein?
A. Myosin.
B. Muscle fascicle.
C. Myofibril.
D. Muscle fiber.
Answer: A

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NO.14 .Which of the following is the ability of a force to cause rotation of a lever?
A. Center of gravity.
B. Base of support.
C. Torque.
D. Stability.
Answer: C

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NO.15 .Blood leaving the heart to be oxygenated in the lungs must first pass through the right atrium and
ventricle. Through which valve does blood flow when moving from the right atrium to the right
ventricle?
A. Bicuspid valve.
B. Tricuspid valve.
C. Pulmonic valve.
D. Aortic valve.
Answer: B

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NO.16 .The C-shaped cartilages of the trachea allow all of the following to occur EXCEPT
A. Ciliated movement of mucus-secreting cells.
B. Distention of the esophagus.
C. Maintenance of open airway.
D. Prevention of tracheal collapse during pres- sure changes.
Answer: A

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NO.17 .Blood from the peripheral anatomy flows to the heart through the superior and inferior venae
cavae into the
A. Right atrium.
B. Left atrium.
C. Right ventricle.
D. Left ventricle.
Answer: A

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NO.18 .Pain caused by low back muscle guarding and spasm in the absence of signs of disk herniation is
often treated with muscle stretching. Which of the following is (are) helpful stretching activities for
the low back?
A. Knee to chest.
B. Double-knee to chest.
C. Lower trunk rotation.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.19 .An abnormal curve of the spine with lateral deviation of the vertebral column is called
A. Lordosis.
B. Scoliosis.
C. Kyphosis.
D. Primary curve.
Answer: B

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NO.20 .Angular motion occurs when
A. A force is applied off-center to a freely- moveable object.
B. A freely-movable object moves in a straight line when a force is applied on-center.
C. An object is free to move only in a linear path.
D. All of the above.
Answer: A

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NO.21 .Running is a locomotor activity similar to walking but with some differences. In comparison to
walking, running requires greater
A. Balance.
B. Muscle strength.
C. Range of motion.
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.22 .The most common site used for measurement of the pulse during exercise is the
A. Popliteal.
B. Femoral.
C. Radial.
D. Dorsalis pedis.
Answer: C

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NO.23 .Which type of musculoskeletal lever is most common?
A. First-class.
B. Second-class.
C. Third-class.
D. Fourth-class.
Answer: C

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NO.24 .Slapping of the foot during heel strike and increased knee and hip flexion during swing are
characteristic of
A. Weakness in the gluteusmedius and minimus.
B. Weakness in the quadricepsfemoris.
C. Weakness in theplantarflexors.
D. Weakness in thedorsiflexors.
Answer: D

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NO.25 .The prime movers for extension of the knee are the
A. Bicepsfemoris.
B. Bicepsbrachii.
C. Quadricepsfemoris.
D. Gastrocnemius.
Answer: C

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NO.26 .All of the following statements are true regarding long bones EXCEPT
A. Thediaphysis is composed of compact bone.
B. The epiphysis consists of spongy bone.
C. Most bones of the axial skeleton are of this type.
D. The central shaft encases themedullary canal.
Answer: C

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NO.27 .A baseball pitcher has been complaining of weakness in the lateral rotation motions of the
shoulder. You have been asked to evaluate him for a strengthening program. Which of the
following muscles would you have him concentrate on strengthening?
A. Subscapularis.
B. Teres major.
C. Latissimus dorsi.
D. Teres minor.
Answer: D

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NO.28 .A client in your exercise class has been complaining of back pain with no ridiculer symptoms. This
person has been treated medically and is now joining the exercise program to improve flexibility in
the low back. Which exercise would be most appropriate for this person to address the stated
goal?
A. Hip flexor stretch.
B. Knee-to-chest stretch.
C. Gastrocnemius stretch.
D. Lateral trunk stretch.
Answer: B

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NO.29 .Which of the following bones articulates proxi- mally with the sternal manubrium and distally with
the scapula and is helpful to palpate in electrode placement?
A. Scapula.
B. Sternum.
C. Clavicle.
D. Twelfth rib.
Answer: C

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NO.30 .Cartilage is categorized as which of the following types of connective tissue?
A. Loose.
B. Dense.
C. Fluid.
D. Supporting.
Answer: D

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A. The user MAPI profile is corrupt
B. Other synchronization software on the user computer has caused a conflict
C. The Synchronize application has not been installed in BlackBerry Desktop Manager
D. The user has not run through the configuration steps for the Synchronize application
E. Duplicate items in the user registry have caused a conflict
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following components must be selected during a custom install of BlackBerry Desktop
Software for S/MIME and Wi-Fi support? (Choose one.)
A. S/MIME Support Package
B. BlackBerry device software
C. BlackBerry Security support package
D. Certificate Synchronization
E. BlackBerry advanced networking support
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which two files are generated by the BlackBerry Desktop Manager during synchronization with
advanced logging enabled? (Choose two.)
A. Dmtrace.log
B. Jvm.log
C. Tiff.log
D. Pttrace.log
E. Sync.log
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 A BlackBerry device user activates with an incorrect password. What error message will be displayed
on the BlackBerry device? (Choose one.)
A. Incorrect password. Please try again.
B. An error has occurred. Please contact your system administrator.
C. Invalid email address or password.
D. Error.
E. Invalid login credentials.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which two of the following processes can determine the current build version of BlackBerry Desktop
Manager that is installed? (Choose two.)
A. Right click the BlackBerry Desktop Manager icon on the desktop and review properties
B. Open BlackBerry Desktop Manager > Help > About Desktop Manager
C. Launch the BlackBerry Desktop Manager application and look at the title bar at the top of the
application
D. Open Control panel > Add / remove programs > Select Desktop Manager and choose lick here for
support info in Windows
E. Look on the BlackBerry Desktop Manager CD
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 If the BlackBerry device is displaying a lower case edge connection status, which two of the following
actions can a BlackBerry device user perform on the BlackBerry device? (Choose two.)
A. Browse the Internet
B. Send or receive email messages
C. Send or receive SMS messages
D. Send or receive PIN messages
E. Make or receive phone calls
Answer: C,E

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NO.7 What is taking place at the Verifying Encryption stage of the wireless enterprise activation process?
(Choose one.)
A. The BlackBerry device and BlackBerry Enterprise Server are negotiating a master encryption key
B. All personal information on the BlackBerry device is being compressed, encrypted and sent over the
wireless network to the BlackBerry
Enterprise Server
C. All settings on the BlackBerry device are being verified by the BlackBerry Enterprise Server for security
considerations
D. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server is sending service book information to the BlackBerry device
E. The BlackBerry device is scanning the BlackBerry Enterprise Server settings for security
considerations
Answer: E

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NO.8 Which two of the following media card settings on the BlackBerry device need to be turned on to copy
files between Windows Explorer and the media card? (Choose two.)
A. Media Card Support
B. USB Flash Drive Bypass Mode
C. Mass Storage Mode Support
D. USB Dongle Support
E. Auto Enable Mass Storage Mode When Connected
Answer: A,C

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NO.9 A BlackBerry device user notices email messages are being randomly deleted from the BlackBerry
device only days after receiving them. The user is not active on a BlackBerry Enterprise Server and does
not use BlackBerry Desktop Manager to synchronize with the messaging client. What are two possible
reasons the user email messages are being deleted? (Choose two.)
A. The email messages database is corrupt
B. The BlackBerry device user does not have sufficient network coverage
C. The BlackBerry device is in a low memory state
D. The hosted mailbox has reached its storage limit
E. The email messages are being automatically filed and hidden
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 Which three of the following steps can be taken to secure a BlackBerry device remotely if it has been
activated on a BlackBerry Enterprise Server? (Choose three.).
A. Reset the password and lock the BlackBerry device
B. Apply a more restrictive IT policy
C. Send a 911 notification to the service provider with the BlackBerry device PIN from the
BlackBerry Enterprise Server
D. Push disabled service books to the BlackBerry device
E. Perform a remote security wipe and disable the BlackBerry device
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.11 What happens after the BlackBerry device user has entered the enterprise activation information and
selects Activate on the BlackBerry device? (Choose one.)
A. The BlackBerry Dispatcher Service contacts the BlackBerry device over the wireless network and
negotiates an encryption key
B. The BlackBerry device submits an ETP.DAT email message directly to the BlackBerry
Enterprise Server
C. The BlackBerry device submits the enterprise activation data to the wireless network
D. The system administrator of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server will receive a request to activate, which
can either be accepted or denied
E. The BlackBerry device service books are verified by the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which two of the following are types of searches that can be performed in the BTSC? (Choose two.)
A. Targeted
B. Software assisted
C. Boolean
D. Natural Language
E. Choice Focused
Answer: C,D

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NO.13 A BlackBerry device user filtered message count in the BlackBerry Administration Service is increasing
and no email messages are being forwarded to the BlackBerry device. Which of the following may be the
cause of this? (Choose one.)
A. The user does not have sufficient wireless coverage
B. The BlackBerry device setting for f no filters apply, send email to handheld is set to No The
BlackBerry device setting for if no filters apply, send email to handheld is set to No
C. The user has not been provisioned for Enterprise services
D. The user mail client rules/policies are interfering with message delivery Theuser mail client
rules/policies are interfering with message delivery
E. The service books on the BlackBerry device are corrupt
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which three of the following steps occur during the wireless enterprise activation process? (Choose
three.)
A. Service books are sent to the BlackBerry device from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
B. The BlackBerry device reboots after it has finished synchronizing all organizer data (PIM) items
C. An encryption key is negotiated between the BlackBerry Enterprise Server and BlackBerry device
D. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server populates the PIN number of the BlackBerry device in the
BlackBerry Administration Service
E. The BlackBerry device must be connected to the user computer to complete the last stage of the
wireless enterprise activation process
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.15 A BlackBerry device user does not possess an organizer application like Microsoft Outlook. Which
translator will work for them to obtain a copy of their contacts and calendar on the computer with
BlackBerry Desktop Manager? (Choose one.)
A. Plain Text
B. ASCII text
C. CSV
D. Notepad
E. Wordpad
Answer: B

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NO.16 By default, which three of the following options will delete all the user data on a BlackBerry device?
(Choose three.)
A. Enter incorrect password 10 times
B. Use the Wipe command in BlackBerry Device Manager
C. Choose Wipe Handheld from general options in security settings
D. Uninstall any application from the Application Permissions menu
E. Use the application loader tool to install new BlackBerry device software
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.17 Which of the following will resolve a VM 517 error (Choose one.)Which of the following will resolve a
VM 517 error (Choose one.)
A. Removing and re-inserting the BlackBerry device battery
B. Performing a security wipe
C. Setting appropriate content store permissions
D. Reinstalling the BlackBerry Device Software using the application loader tool
E. Removing and re-seating the BlackBerry device SIM Card Removing and re-seating the BlackBerry
device SIM Card
Answer: D

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NO.18 .When performing a backup of the BlackBerry device using the backup and restore tool in BlackBerry
Desktop Manager, what is the file extension of the backup file that is created? (Choose one.)
A. .bak
B. .sav
C. .ipd
D. .fil
E. .tmp
Answer: C

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NO.19 A user wants to connect a BlackBerry device to BlackBerry Desktop Manager using Bluetooth to
synchronize. Which of the following are requirements? (Choose one.)
A. The computer must be running the Bluetooth software from the manufacturer of the Bluetooth adapter
B. The BlackBerry Bluetooth to USB driver must be installed on the computer
C. The BlackBerry device must have the Wireless Bypass service enabled
D. The BlackBerry device must have the Bluetooth Sync service enabled
E. The computer and the BlackBerry Device must have line of sight of each other
Answer: C

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NO.20 Since upgrading the BlackBerry Device Software, a BlackBerry device user is reporting that custom
audio notifications are no longer configured. Which two of the following options may resolve the issue?
(Choose two.)
A. Synchronize using BlackBerry Desktop Manager to import any pre-existing custom audio profiles
B. Create a new Audio Profile in BlackBerry Desktop Manager Media Manager and import it with the
application loader tool
C. Manually recreate the lost notifications in the Profiles application of the BlackBerry device
D. If a backup file was created in BlackBerry Desktop Manager, restoring the Options database will
restore custom profiles
E. Download new ring tone content from the service provider and install using the BlackBerry Browser
Answer: C,D

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Exam Code: BCP-421
Exam Name: BlackBerry (Maintaining a BlackBerry Enterprise Server v5.0 in an IBM Lotus Domino Environment)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 99 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which toolscan a system administrator use to move a BlackBerry device user between two instances
of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server? (Choose two.)
A. BESUserAdminClient
B. BlackBerry Administration Service
C. BlackBerry Server Configuration Panel
D. BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager
E. EAStatus
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 Which three of the following steps should a system administrator perform when a BlackBerry device
user reports that address book synchronization between the BlackBerry device and the email application
is not working? (Choose three.)
A. Ensure desktop email application is configured to work with the server copy of the address book
B. Ensure the user is enabled for wireless address book synchronization
C. Ensure the user does not have any IT policies applied that would prevent wireless
synchronization
D. Ensure the user is able to browse using the BlackBerry Browser
E. Ensure the user is able to synchronize calendar appointments wirelessly
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 Which three of the following policies are the default application control policies? (Choose three.)
A. Default Optional
B. Standard Required
C. Default Recommended
D. Standard Optional
E. Default Disallowed
F. Standard Disallowed
Answer: B,D,F

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NO.4 What credentials are required to perform a wireless enterprise activation of Wi-Fi enabled BlackBerry
devices over a Wi-Fi connection? (Choose one.)
A. Activation server address, e-mail address and password
B. E-mail address and password
C. Activation server address
D. Activation server address and password
E. Activation server address and e-mail address
Answer: A

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NO.5 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button to open this item. Once you have completed this item and have selected Done, you
may click Next to proceed to the next item.
Answer:

NO.6 In the BlackBerry Monitoring Service, which three of the following formats can be used to format a
generated report? (Choose three.)
A. .txt
B. .pdf
C. .csv
D. .doc
E. .html
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.7 A system administrator wants to install BlackBerry Enterprise Server software version 5.0 into an
environment. Which two versions of IBM Lotus Domino are supported for this type of installation?
(Choose two.)
A. 5
B. 6
C. 6.55
D. 7
E. 8
Answer: D,E

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NO.8 When performing a wireless enterprise activation, where does the activation email message come from
that is delivered to the user mailbox? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerryMailStore Service
B. BlackBerry Dispatcher
C. Organizations firewall
D. BlackBerry Infrastructure
E. Wireless service providers network
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which two of the following BlackBerry Enterprise Server versions for IBM Lotus Domino can be
upgraded to version 5.0? (Choose two.)
A. 2.2.7 SP7
B. 4.0 SP5
C. 4.0 SP7
D. 4.1 SP1
E. 4.1 SP2
F. 4.1 SP3
Answer: C,F

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NO.10 Which three of the following BlackBerry Enterprise Server components could a system
administrator use to successfully perform a wired enterprise activation? (Choose three.)
A. BlackBerry Desktop Manager
B. BlackBerry Administration Service
C. BlackBerry Configuration Panel
D. BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager
E. BlackBerry OTASL
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.11 Which three of the following BlackBerry Enterprise Server components can be installed remotely or
configured to run separately from the original instance of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server? (Choose
three.)
A. BlackBerryRouter Service
B. BlackBerry Policy Service
C. BlackBerry Dispatcher Service
D. BlackBerry Attachment Service
E. BlackBerry Monitoring Service
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.12 Which of the following is the default port number that the BlackBerry Monitoring Service Trap Listener
will bind to? (Choose one.)Which of the following is the default port number that the BlackBerry
Monitoring Service? Trap Listener will bind to? (Choose one.)
A. 152
B. 142
C. 162
D. 125
E. 110
Answer: C

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NO.13 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button to open this item. Once you have completed this item and have selected Done, you
may click Next to proceed to the next item.
Answer:

NO.14 Which three of the following are pre-requisites for PGP encryption to be implemented in the BlackBerry
Enterprise Solution? (Choose three.)
A. Set the PGP Universal Server Address IT policy rule in the IT policy that you assign to
BlackBerry device users.
B. Instruct users to install the PGP Support Package for BlackBerry devices on their BlackBerry devices.
C. Instruct users to install the BlackBerry Security Package tool.
D. Instruct users to enroll with PGP when their BlackBerry devices prompt them to.
E. Wirelessly regenerate encryption keys from the BlackBerry device.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.15 Which three types of authentication methods are available for BlackBerry device users to log in to
BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager? (Choose three.)
A. BlackBerry Administration Service
B. Microsoft SQL Server Authentication
C. Domino Mailbox
D. Active Directory
E. IBM Lotus Notes ID
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.16 Assuming that the BlackBerry Monitoring Service is installed separately on its own server, on which
two locations would the system administrator need to install the SNMP Service in order for the BlackBerry
Monitoring Service to receive SNMP trap data from all the BlackBerry Enterprise Server components?
(Choose two.)
A. The server that hosts the BlackBerry Monitoring Service
B. The server that hosts each remote BlackBerry Enterprise Server component
C. The server that hosts the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
D. The server that host the BlackBerry Monitoring Service and BlackBerry Enterprise Server
E. The server that hosts each remote BlackBerry component and the BlackBerry Monitoring Service
Answer: B,C

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NO.17 At which two levels can organizer data synchronization field mappings be modified? (Choose two.)
A. User level
B. Server level
C. Group level
D. Domain level
Answer: A,D

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NO.18 Which three of the following incomplete enterprise activation states can be tracked using the BlackBerry
Administration Service? (Choose three.)
A. Ongoing
B. Pending
C. Password Set
D. Failed
E. Password Not Set
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.19 Which task must be running on a target IBM Lotus Domino server in order to support IBM Lotus Notes
links? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry Enterprise Server
B. BlackBerry Router
C. Adminp
D. Agent Manager
E. HTTP
Answer: E

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NO.20 Where would a system administrator configure BlackBerry Alert Service notifications? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry Monitoring Service
B. BlackBerry Administration Service
C. BlackBerry Configuration Panel
D. BlackBerry MDS Integration Service Application Console
E. BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager
Answer: B

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Exam Code: C_TB1200_07
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Implementation Consultant SAP Business One 2007)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 152 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Every day my employees run a query to check how many orders we have issued on that day and what
their value was. I have created a simple query using the Orders table (ORDR): Document Number,
Document Date, Document Total Where Document Date EQUAL 01/05/07 (for example). How can I
create a "general" query so I do not have to go into this query statement every day to change the date in
the "Where" condition area?
A.Define a variable in the "Where" condition area of the formula: Document Date EQUAL '[%0]' then save
the query. Each time you run it, the system will prompt you to enter the desired date.
B.Delete the condition from the query. Create a general query that will display all the orders created in the
system to date. When the report displays, use the Sort Table to display the desired data.
C.Define a variable in the "Where" condition area of the formula: Document Date NOT EQUAL '[%0]' then
save the query. Each time you run it, the system will prompt you to enter the desired date.
D.Define a variable in the "Group By" condition area of the formula: Document Date EQUAL '[%3]' then
save the query.
Answer:A

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NO.2 How is the available quantity calculated in SAP Business One?
A.Quantity in stock - quantity committed + quantity ordered.
B.Quantity in stock + quantity committed - quantity ordered.
C.Quantity in stock + quantity ordered.
D.Quantity in stock - quantity committed.
Answer:A

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NO.3 Sophie created a query and now wants to print a report from the query. What must Sophie do before
she can print the query results?
A.Link her query to a base template using the Query Manager.
B.Link her query to a base template using the Print Layout Designer.
C.Link her query to a base template using the Query Print Layout tool.
D.Link her query to a base template using the Query Generator.
Answer:A

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NO.4 Kathryn from Roses and Sunflowers gift shop creates a purchase order for an item, which is out of
stock. The current stock level for the item is zero. There are no open purchase orders or sales orders for
this item. After she has selected the item in the purchase order, she notices that there is a 4 in the
'Quantity' field. Why?
A.The value in the 'Items per Purchase Unit' field on the 'Purchasing Data' tab is 4.
B.The value in the 'Factor 2' field on the 'Purchasing Data' tab is 4.
C.The value in the 'Required (Purchasing UoM) Inventory Level' field is 4.
D.The value in the 'Quantity Per Packaging Unit' field on the 'Purchasing Data' tab is 4.
Answer:A B C D

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NO.5 You want to show your customer which documents relate to each other in SAP Business One. Which
of these statements is correct?
A.When you display a document, you can use the base and target document icons to display a document
flow.
B.From the document, drill down to the business partner master data and choose Document Flow.
C.Use Drag Relate to display which documents are related to each other.
D.You can branch from the display of a document to its history. There you find a chronological list of all
base and target documents.
Answer:A

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NO.6 I want to create a query to display all the invoices over $1500 issued for a specific customer by one of
my sales employees Sara Chang. How do I find which fields I should enter in the SQL query?
A.When you hold down the Ctrl key and click the mouse on a field you want to display, the table and field
name will appear at the bottom of the screen.
B.When you click the mouse on a field you want to display and choose View -> System information, the
table and field name will appear at the bottom of the screen in the Status Bar.
C.Open the Query Wizard because it automatically enters the table and field names in the SQL query.
D.Use the Query Generator because it automatically enters the table and field names in the SQL query,
after you click the mouse on a field you want to display.
Answer:B

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NO.7 PKJ Ltd maintains its price list automatically based on last purchase price. When PKJ sells a product,
they want to add their overhead of 40% to the sales price. How can they accomplish this?
A.Create a Customer price list based on the Last Purchase price list, select all the prices and increase
them by 40%.
B.Create a Customer price list and enter the sales prices.
C.Create a Customer price list based on the Last Purchase price list with a factor of 1.4.
D.In the business partner master data, select the Last Purchase price list and specify a premium of 40%.
Answer:C

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NO.8 The following statements relate to the analysis of sales opportunities. Which statements are correct?
A.Use the Opportunity Statistics Report to analyze entered, open, and closed opportunities in the system.
B.To get an overview of the progress of all sales opportunities, use the Stage Analysis report.
C.The Opportunities Forecast Report only takes account of completed opportunities.
D.Open opportunities are not included in the Opportunity Pipeline analysis.
E.A sales manager can use selection criteria in "My Open Opportunities Report" to view sales
opportunites for any of his direct reports.
Answer:A B C D E

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NO.9 Which statements are correct regarding inventory valuation methods?
A.With moving average cost valuation, stock is valued by dividing the total value by the total quantity.
B.With moving average cost valuation, you must enter a cost price into the item master record.
C.With standard cost valuation, stock may need to be periodically revalued.
D.With first in - first out valuation, stock is valued using the cost of the oldest item.
E.With first in - first out valuation, stock is valued using the cost of the most recent item.
Answer:A B C D E

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NO.10 Sophie created a user-defined query and linked a template to it using the query print layout function.
After she designed the template she realized that she needs to add an additional column of data to the
report. Can Sophie add new columns to the existing report?
A.No. Since Sophie can only change static report information and cannot add database fields to the
matrix data, she must create a new query and assign it to a new print template.
B.No. Once Sophie has assigned the template to the query, she cannot make any changes to any field in
the report.
C.Yes. Sophie can add new columns to the report by creating a new database field in the repetitive area
of the linked template.
D.Yes. Sophie can create a new column in the template, and since it is linked to the query, it will update
the original template and the matrix data automatically.
Answer:A

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NO.11 You are reviewing the details of a user-defined query and notice the strings: [%1], [%2], and [%3]. What
is the function of these strings in a query?
A.The string [%0] is a variable used to create a query. Each variable is unique, so if more than one
variable is defined, each requires a unique name such as: [%1], [%2].
B.The strings: [%1], [%2], and [%3] represent fixed values in the query.
C.The strings: [%1], [%2], and [%3] are conditions you can see displayed in the Conditions column in the
Query Generator.
D.The strings: [%1], [%2], and [%3] are fields from the OITM table which you can retrieve from either the
Query Generator or Query Wizard.
Answer:A

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NO.12 I add a new Sales Opportunity for a business partner. I do not want to issue any documents to this
partner at the moment. However, I would like to link this opportunity to a Quotation that I issued for
another business partner in the past. Is this possible?
A.Access the sales opportunity and choose the Stages tab. Select 'Sales Quotation' as the document type,
then select a quotation from another business partner.
B.Access the sales opportunity and enter the code of the other business partner as the 'Partner'. You can
now link any quotation issued to that business partner to your opportunity.
C.You can only link activities directly to the sales opportunity.
D.You can only link a sales opportunity to a quotation for the same business partner.
Answer:A

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NO.13 For which of the following events is the moving average cost recalculated?
A.Stock entry.
B.Stock release.
C.Completion of a production order.
D.Purchase order submission.
Answer:A B C D

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NO.14 A company issues a large number of deliveries on a monthly basis. The company's sales manager
wants to know the fastest way to produce invoices based on these deliveries. What would you
recommend?
A.Use the Document Generation Wizard. Select A/R Invoice as the target document and Deliveries as the
base document. Select all deliveries for the relevant month.
B.Use the Dunning Wizard. Select A/R Invoice as the document type. Use the posting date to select all
deliveries for the relevant month.
C.Use the Document Generation Wizard. Select A/R Invoices as the base document and Delivery as the
target document. Select all deliveries for the relevant month.
D.Use the Payment Wizard. Select Deliveries as the base document and A/R Invoice as the target
document. Use the posting date to select relevant deliveries.
Answer:A

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NO.15 What functions are available in the Human Resources module of SAP Business One?
A.Payroll processing
B.Shift planning
C.Employee master data
D.Recording and evaluation of absences
E.Tracking of employee costs and salaries
Answer:A B C D E

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NO.16 What are the advantages of query print layouts as opposed to standard queries?
A.You can adjust the template of the query print layouts.
B.You can add sub-sorts and sub-totals using the print layout designer.
C.Query print layouts can be based on several queries.
D.Authorization administration for query print layouts is simpler.
E.You can standardize your report layouts by using a customized base template, for example, with the
company logo, for all the reports.
Answer:A B C D E

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NO.17 The sales manager at Gali Sport is confused by the different prices that can be related to a customer:
price lists and special prices. He needs to understand how the system calculates prices in sales
documents. Which answer below reflects the order in which the system looks for the correct price?
A.1) Special prices for the customer 2) Discount groups linked to the business partner 3) Period and
volume discounts defined for the price list and linked to the business partner 4) The price list specified in
the business partner master data
B.1) Discount groups 2) Special prices for the customer 3) Period and volume discounts for the price list
linked to the business partner 4) The default price list for the customer
C.1) The default price list for the document 2) Discount groups tied to the document 3) Special prices for
the customer
D.1) Customer special prices 2) Discount groups 3) Period and volume discounts defined for the price list
linked to the document 4) Price list defined for the document
Answer:A

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NO.18 The sales manager wants to be informed whenever a customer exceeds his credit limit. However, he
does not want the sales process to be blocked when he is not available. What do you recommend?
A.Activate and configure the predefined alert function 'Deviation from Credit Limit' so that the sales
manager gets informed automatically.
B.Activate and configure the predefined approval procedure 'Deviation from Credit Limit' so that the sales
manager gets informed automatically.
C.Restrict the general authorization to confirm credit line deviations to the sales manager.
D.Activate and configure a user-defined alert when a customer exceeds the credit limit. The alert goes to
each sales person and they can save the sales document as a draft.
Answer:A

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NO.19 Which elements of a query are optional when you create a query with the Query Wizard?
A.Conditions
B.Table entries
C.Field entries
D.Grouping
E.Sorting
Answer:A B C D E

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NO.20 Our purchasing manager would like to see a weekly report that lists stock items that fall below a critical
point. What is the easiest way of doing this?
A.In the inventory data of the item, enter the minimum required inventory level. Whenever employees post
a goods issue that brings the stock below this threshold, they need to send an email message to the
purchasing manager.
B.In the warehouse data of the item, enter the minimum required inventory level and activate the
predefined alert 'Minimum Stock Deviation' that will inform the purchasing manager whenever stock falls
below this threshold.
C.Create a query that lists all the items with inventory below the minimum level and link this query to a
user-defined alert. Specify the required frequency, click the checkbox to make the alert active, and make
sure you select the purchasing manager as the receiver.
D.In the document settings, set the 'When Attempting to Release Stock Below the Minimum Level'
indicator. Whenever an employee posts a goods issue that brings the stock below this threshold, the
purchasing manager automatically receives a message.
Answer:C

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NO.1 The customer has an error that can be reproduced on their system.
How do you proceed to investigate this issue?
A. The customer is no longer entitled to support since they have caused a fault in the system.
B. Ask the customer to use a different system since this installation is experiencing issues.
C. Ask the customer to document the workflow step by step so that you can attempt to reproduce the
issue on your internal system.
D. The customer's system has the fault therefore you only need to use their system for further
investigation and testing.
Answer: C

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NO.2 How can you find the Root Cause Analysis within SAP Solution Manager?
A. Use the appropriate work center transaction code.
B. Fill in the search box with keyword Root Cause Analysis.
C. Open a new application with default settings.
D. Use the left side menu.
Answer: A

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NO.3 You receive a customer message where several issues are reported.
What will be your next step?
A. Ask the customer to create one message per issue.
B. Ask your colleagues for processing this message.
C. Solve all issues in the message, because it is beneficial for customers to report several issues in one
message.
D. Start message processing without contacting the customer.
Answer: A

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NO.4 What characterizes On the Job Enablement sessions?
A. They are workshops coordinated by the Partner Services Adviser (PSA).
B. They are open workshops.
C. They are not available to Channel partners.
D. They are chargeable add-ons.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What does priority in incident management mean?
A. It is an attribute of the customer's system.
B. It is an attribute that characterizes the urgency of an issue.
C. It is an attribute of the Service Desk.
D. It defines the importance of the customer for SAP.
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is SAP EarlyWatch Check?
A. It is a fully automatically generated report.
B. It is a document that customers follow to check their platform.
C. It is a service delivered onsite.
D. It is a service delivered remotely.
Answer: D

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NO.7 As an SAP partner you have implemented SAP Solution Manager.
Which of the following statements reflects the requirements with regards to SAP Solution Manager
installation on the customer site?
A. Customers do not require their own SAP Solution Manager installation.
B. Customers require their own installation of SAP Solution Manager.
C. Customers and partner need to have SAP Solution Manager clustered.
D. Customers need to install SAP Solution Manager and the partner needs to connect to it.
Answer: A

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NO.8 If you want to add an SAP or non-SAP system to your landscape, which transaction do you need to
run?
A. SOLMAN_WORKCENTER
B. MSY_SETUP
C. SMSY_SETUP
D. SMSY
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is the recommended way to progress a message that is difficult to clarify?
A. Escalate the message immediately to a more senior support consultant.
B. Ask the client to provide screenshots and request information point by point.
C. Change the message status to Customer Action and tell the client that you cannot do much until more
information is provided.
D. Force the client to close the message and open a new one that is clearer.
Answer: B

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NO.10 What does Mission-Critical Support within SAP Enterprise Support include? (Choose two)
A. Ramp-up support
B. Robust Service Level Agreements (SLA)
C. 7 x 24 root cause analysis
D. SAP system backup
Answer: B,C

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NO.11 What can the processor use in the Service Desk for message processing? (Choose two)
A. CRM_DNO_MONITOR transaction within SAP GUI
B. Transaction INCMAN
C. Business Process Monitoring Work Center
D. Incident Management Work Center
Answer: A,D

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NO.12 What is the Software Developer Network (SDN)?
A. The Software Developer Network (SDN) is a portal containing information about code strategy for third
party products.
B. The Software Developer Network (SDN) is a portal containing robust and complete information about
the underlying code of the SAP Product suite.
C. The Software Developer Network (SDN) is a portal containing robust and complete collection of
content and collaboration dedicated to SAP technology.
D. The Software Developer Network (SDN) is a tool that is available only to the SAP developer team to
brainstorm solutions for code level issues.
Answer: C

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NO.13 What is Product Support Hierarchy in SAP environment? (Choose two)
A. It is an instrument in organization and reporting within Product Support.
B. It defines the maintenance pricing level.
C. It is a view on the Application Component Hierarchy.
D. It is part of the Service Level Agreement.
Answer: A,C

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NO.14 What type of reports can be produced with SAP EarlyWatch Alert?
A. Reports exclusively with graphics
B. Reports with animations
C. Reports with or without graphics
D. Reports exclusively without graphics
Answer: C

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NO.15 What is the characteristic of a system when defined as a subset of the installation in SAP systems.?
(Choose two)
A. A system corresponds to production, test AND development environment.
B. A system is identified using a system ID.
C. One system can be a child to multiple installations.
D. A system corresponds to either production, test OR development environment.
Answer: B,D

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