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Exam Code: HP2-B11
Exam Name: HP (HP Designjet Foundations Datasheet)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 88 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 For some reason the line can be a bit uneven? (Choose two options.)
A. Damage printhead
B. Too heavy paper
C. The deformation of the paper itself
D. The use of paper, which was kept in extreme conditions
Answer: AD

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NO.2 .Which printer models, Designjet possible to update the firmware?
A. 1000 series and 500 series
B. 400 series and 1000 series
C. 400 series, 500 and 800 series
D. 4000 series and 100/120/130 series
Answer: C

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NO.3 What HP Designjet printers are ideal for professional graphics applications? (Choose two answers.)
A. The HP Designjet 1930 series
B. The HP Designjet 4500 series
C. The HP Designjet 5500 series
D. The printer HP Designjet 500/800 series
Answer: BC

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NO.4 .What is the purpose of refilling ink system ink DesignJet printer after installation asymmetric-type?
A. Ensuring the proper pressure inside the cartridge.
B. Complete removal of ink, which could remain inside the tubes.
C. Initialization of the cartridge and a smart card printhead (accumen).
D. Ensure complete removal of air from the pipe system and adequate pressure of ink.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which statement describes the process of custom color management based on profiles of ICC?
A. The user has no control over the process of displaying non-CMYK colors.
B. U user less able to manage the display of non-CMYK colors.
C. U user more control over the process of displaying non-CMYK colors.
D. Management of the display outside the CMYK color corresponds to the work without the use of profiles
ICC.
Answer: D

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NO.6 What are the main characteristics of format TIFF?
A. File format images tagged content.
B. File format images, which are indexed color palette.
C. image file format that uses compression technology with data loss.
D. Preservation of formatting for the file to be transferred between computer architectures.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which statements about forming a halftone images when printing is correct? (Choose two answers.)
A. halftone is an image in the "Sepia".
B. halftone image is converted into a series of dots that simulate the original image.
C. Formation of the grayscale image - a process of varying the density and structure of black and white
dots to simulate shades of gray.
D. Formation of a grayscale image - a process of varying the density and structure of blue, purple and
yellow dots to limit the amount of ink required for your vehicle.
Answer: BC

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NO.8 You're on your printer Designjet, printheads which have been configured. The printer re-installed and
ready for inclusion. What is the next step should be taken?
A. Before turning to manually fill the tube with ink.
B. Hold the top button, turn the power to automatically fill tubes with ink.
C. Set the configured printheads and follow the instructions on the front panel display.
D. Remove the printheads are configured, installed in the cartridge for transportation, establish a working
print heads, and include meals.
Answer: B

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NO.9 .Which statement is true with respect to PCL?
A. Optimized for printers Designjet.
B. Requires more memory the printer than the memory card HP-GL.
C. It is used for printing high quality graphics in vector form.
D. It is used for printing high quality graphics in bitmap format.
Answer: A

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NO.10 For some reason the ink soak into the paper, making the lines blurred and fuzzy? (Choose two
answers.)
A. The air inside the printhead
B. Wrong temperature
C. The paper does not cover the back side
D. Too high humidity
Answer: BD

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NO.11 Which printers are equipped with built-in web server? (Choose two answers.)
A. Designjet 70/90
B. Designjet 5500
C. Designjet 1000
D. Designjet 4000
E. Designjet 500/800
Answer: BD

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NO.12 .A team of mechanical engineering production company wants to buy Designjet. What is the purpose,
that client will use the HP Designjet? (Choose two answers.)
A. Drawings
B. Pre-press proofing
C. High quality pictures
D. Printing from CAD applications
Answer: AC

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NO.13 .What is the main characteristic of the format JPEG?
A. Format the image file with the tagged content.
B. Format of the image file, in which the indexed color palette.
C. image file format that uses compression technology with data loss.
D. Preservation of formatting for the file to be transferred between computer architectures.
Answer: C

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NO.14 When you want to fill the system Designjet printers asymmetric-type?
A. Filling not required.
B. After 10000 cycles, scanning along the axis.
C. Each time you change tubes for ink.
D. When you first start, and the replacement of tubes for ink.
Answer: A

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NO.15 What are the reasons for the need to pack for HP Designjet? (Choose two answers.)
A. Need to update a driver
B. The need to upgrade RAM
C. Need to update the firmware
D. The need for hardware upgrades
Answer: AC

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NO.16 Which statement best describes the products HP Designjet?
A. The line of products includes HP Designjet ink-jet printers HP large format.
B. The line of products includes HP Designjet HP Inkjet Printer small size.
C. A product line includes the HP Designjet Laser Printers HP large format.
D. Product line includes HP Designjet Laser Printers HP small format.
Answer: A

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NO.17 .In some models when installing a roll Designjet function folding excess material in the paper roll is
performed in accordance with the sequence of treatment users. What gives?
A. A minimum of waste paper.
B. Paper does not get dirty.
C. Accuracy of using the tracking parameter length of the material.
D. Proper protivonatyazhenie material in the boot process to prevent warping of the paper.
Answer: A

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NO.18 What HP Designjet printers are ideal for professional applications software? (Choose two answers.)
A. The HP Designjet 1930 series
B. The HP Designjet 1050 series
C. The HP Designjet 4500 series
D. The HP Designjet 5500 series
Answer: BC

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NO.19 .Which statement about the differences in the printer ICC profiles between the driver and the
RIP-processor is true?
A. For a given material and the print mode, there is always a unique profile ICC.
B. color management firmware runs your printer, and the same information is used for transformation.
C. ICC printer profiles in RIP-processor optimized for printing test prints, and profiles in the driver
optimized for photos.
D. printer ICC profiles in the RIP-processor is the profile of the color system CMYK, and driver profiles -
profiles with the color system RGB.
Answer: D

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NO.20 What is the function of feeder ink?
A. Cleaning the printhead.
B. Assistance in cleaning up the feed and share clips.
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C. Mounting of cartridges and ink in the printhead.
D. Submission of ink in the tube during the closing and cleaning printheads.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-Y24
Exam Name: HP (Securing HP ProCurve Networks)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What is the default state of a Port Access Entity configured for IEEE 802.1X port-access
authentication?
A. disabled
B. authorized
C. restricted
D. idle
E. unauthorized
Answer: E

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
Which image in the exhibit shows an invalid NIM + IDS deployment?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which statement is correct about the ProCurve ProActive Defense strategy?
A. It operates at a safe distance from the points of attack and the network resources being attacked.
B. It achieves better-performing, more scalable networks by using high capacity core resources.
C. It enforces access and policy decisions where users and applications connect to the network.
D. It creates a cost-effective management framework by using core infrastructure protection measures.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Network security can be described in terms of multiple layers of security. The DHCP Spoofing and
Dynamic ARP Protection features correspond to which layer?
A. infrastructure protection
B. network immunity protection
C. device-to-device authentication
D. network access control
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which infrastructure defense capabilities are provided by the ProCurve ProActive Defense network
security solution? (Select two.)
A. vulnerability assessment database
B. connection rate filtering
C. spoofing protection of DHCP traffic
D. managed security services
E. phishing protection
Answer: BC

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NO.6 What is the intended purpose of the default traffic sampling action?
A. to help PCM+/NIM periodically begin to monitor new ports
B. to prevent ProCurve NIM from triggering false positives
C. to send traffic for increased analysis to an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
D. to allow ProCurve NIM to take immediate action against the most probable threats
Answer: A

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
Which alert shown in the exhibit is the least sensitive?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which role does the authenticator play in the 802.1X authentication process?
A. It encapsulates an EAP-access-request inside of a RADIUS response-identity packet and forwards it
for validation.
B. It creates and sends an access-challenge message to the supplicant to request client credentials.
C. It provides two-way translation between EAP messages and RADIUS messages.
D. It validates the EAP-identity-request and responds with either an accept or reject message.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Network security can be described in terms of multiple layers of security. Which security layer does an
unauthorized VLAN correspond to?
A. network access control
B. network immunity protection
C. control protocol detection
D. device-to-device authentication
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which statement is correct about the threat mitigation capabilities of ProCurve NIM?
A. NIM can apply a threat mitigation action to supported infrastructure devices.
B. NIM can mitigate threats detected by NBAD, but must only log other threats.
C. NIM can detect threats but relies on an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) to mitigate them.
D. NIM can mitigate threats from wired offenders, but not wireless offenders.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: Hp2-B51
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Document Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 25 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What are the benefits of an HP document solution sale to both you and your customer?
A. increased sales of MFPs and greater customer satisfaction
B. increased sales of printers and a great deal for the customer
C. higher revenue and sales margins, and the opportunity to change the customer's work methods to
increase efficiency and reduce costs
D. higher sales volume and overheads, and the opportunity to change the customer's work methods to
increase head count and reduce costs
Answer: C

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NO.2 What do IT departments need to do to gain support for new projects?
A. ensure the project comes in on budget
B. satisfy the issues of implementation, roll out, and support
C. satisfy the issues raised by finance and purchasing departments
D. ensure the project meets overall business strategy and identify the beneficiaries
Answer: D

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NO.3 What can IT departments provide to justify spending on new projects.?
A. ROI analysis
B. SAP analysis
C. ERP analysis
D. ROA analysis
Answer: A

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Exam Code: Hp2-E24
Exam Name: HP (HP Service Sales Profession)
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Total Q&A: 78 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 You offer either basic Installation or Installation & Start-up Care Pack services to your
customers. Which operations constitute the distinction between the two offerings? (Select two)
A. operation and 9¡Á5softerware support verification
B. coordination of network installation and start-upactivitises
C. configuration download
D. confirmation of software revisions and device cabling
E. building the configurationfile
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 Your customer owns HP ProCurve Network Management software. How long are maintenance
releases available at no additional cost?
A. for as long as the customer owns the product
B. for one year, starting at the date of the purchase
C. for a period of 90 days
D. until the next version is released
Answer: A

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NO.3 Why is it more effective to purchase an HP Care Pack support service than to purchase extra
printers in case of failure? (Select two.)
A. It reduces uncontrolled internal cost for logistic, installation, follow-up.
B. New printers imply new settings for the users.
C. Internal batteries may discharge while on shelf.
D. A printer should be installed only by an HP certified service technician.
E. HP printers cannot be moved once they are operational.
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 Which services should be quoted by default with each storge platform that does not include
bundled sercices? (Select two.)
A. 1-year HP Care Pack
B. HP Proactive Service
C. HP Installation and Startup Service
D. 3-year HP Care pack
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 Which approximate fraction of all customer helpdesk calls relates to commercial printers?
A. more than 75%
B. up to 50%
C. less than 10%
D. between 10% and 20%
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which value do HP services provide to the customers in addition to the warranty?
A. increased product reliability
B. advanced ormore timely response
C. free phone access numbers
D. 4-hour call-to-repair commitment
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which HP Care Pack do you advise for HP Scanjets if your customer has critical business
needs?
A. 4-hour Onsite Response, 24¡Á7
B. Next Day Onsite
C. Next Day Exchange
D. 4-hour Onsite Response, 9¡Á5
Answer: D

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NO.8 Your HP ProLiant customer is looking for a single solution for hardware and openrating system
technical support services. Which HP Care Pack categories provide hardware and O/S
techinal support services in one part number? (Select two.)
A. Support Plus 24
B. Hardware Services 6-Hour Call to Repair On-site Service
C. Installation & Start-up Services
D. Support Plus
E. Hardware Services On-site Service
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 What prevents a 5-year HP Care Pack from usage as a post-warranty Care Pack？
A. The 5-year HP Care Packcan not be registered after the standard warranty period has
expired.
B. The maximum Care Pack lifetime is three years.
C. Post-warranty service requires individual contracts.
D. The main warranty is threeyears, consequently a 2-year Care Pack is required.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which feature do HP Care Pack service offers provide?
A. hardware and software maintenance
B. hardware maintenance only
C. software maintenance only
D. parts-only coverage
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which area in covered if we sell improvement of timeliness of problem resolutions?
A. increase IT quality
B. improve agility
C. mitigate risk
D. manage costs
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which lifetime warranty level is included when selling an HP ProCurve 2910aI-24G Switch?
A. Next-Business-Day
B. Onsite-Parts-Exchange
C. SupportPlus
D. SupportPlus 24
Answer: A

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NO.13 Travel Next Business Day response HP Care Pack service provides mobiles computer users
with a support solution for HP Notebook products. Where can it be claimed?
A. in listed countries across all regions
B. in the country where the notebook was purchased
C. in EMEA
D. in the region where the notebook was purchased
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which service provides the most complete range of deliverables?
A. 6-hour Call-to-Repair
B. 4-hour 24¡Á7
C. Proactive 24
D. Next Business Day on-site
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which HP service is classified as reactive?
A. Data Center Service
B. Support Plus 24
C. Education Service
D. Critical Service
Answer: B

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Total Q&A: 51 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Why it is so important to ask"Probing" questions in a sales situation? (Select two.)
A. The help to assess if the customer has a genuine requirement and is likely to invest.
B. They help to uncover or create the customers business needs.
C. They help to determine the customer's view of the competition.
D. They help in understanding the customer's problems or challenges and the associated
implications.
E. They help toarrive at the most accurate pricing structure for the project.
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 Traditionally IT departments have spent which percentage of their budget on operations and which
percentage on innovation?
A. 60% operations and 40% innovation
B. 50% operations and 50% innovation
C. 70% operations and 30% innovation
D. 40% operations and 60% innovation
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are the benefits of pooling and sharing resources in a Converged Infrastructure? (Select two.)
A. IT can charge the business more accurately.
B. All users can access the same "Storage Area Network" (SAN) which reduces the time it takes to launch
new services.
C. IT can quickly reallocate resources to match the changing performance and capacity needs of different
applications.
D. IT can respond more quickly to business changes and requests for new services can be dealt with in
weeks not months
E. IT resources do not need to be involved in any aspect of service provisioning.
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 What are the characteristics of an HP converged infrastructure?
A. Virtualized.Resilient. Orchestrated. Optimized, and Modular
B. Virtualized.Resilient. Orchestrated. Ongoing, and Modular
C. Virtualized.Robust. Orchestrated, Optimized, and Modular
D. Virtualized.Robust. Orchestrated, Optimized, and Managed
Answer: A

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NO.5 At the end of a customer meeting it is important to establish the next actions and seek agreement from
the customer on their actions. Which type of question should you ask at the end of the meeting?
A. Confirmation
B. Commitment
C. New Information
D. Conclusive
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is HP CI-MM Express?
A. It provides an assessment of the customer's current "as is" IT environment before proposing a
converged infrastructure evolution path.
B. It is a service designed to evaluate capacity across the server and storage estate.
C. It is a service to help customers implement "cloud computing."
D. It is a converged infrastructure measurement methodology that enables customers to predict future
server capacity requirements.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which statements are true when describing the HP Converged Infrastructure? (Select two.)
A. Payback can be achieved in less than one year.
B. IT resources can be reduced by 50%.
C. IT services provisioning can be reduced from approximately one month to as little as two hours
D. Customers can achieve 95% equipment consolidation
E. Customers can achieve 95% cost savings.
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 Why is it important to ask an Attitude question at the end of a sales meeting? (Select two.)
A. to establish the decision date, decision making criteria and basis of decision
B. to be polite
C. to establish the customer's real views about your proposals
D. to inquire as to how someone else in the organization might view the proposals
E. to eliminate the competition from the sales opportunity
Answer: C,D

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NO.9 The opening stages of a customer meeting are critical to the overall success of the meeting. What
should you always agree on at the beginning of each customer sales meeting? (Select two.)
A. the duration and agenda
B. the next action and the owner
C. the customer's objectives for the meeting
D. date for next meeting
E. the project timescales and budget
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 Which type of costs can HP Insight Manager typically reduce by at least 29%?
A. procurement
B. administration
C. server
D. floor space
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-K18
Exam Name: HP (ASC - HP Enterprise Storage Solutions [2009] )
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Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 You are preparing a customer presentation on HP integrated Archive Platform(AP).You want to discuss
that it is compliance-enabled for data retention needs. What are features of this particular IAP benefit?
(Select two)
A. is positioned as a records management platform
B. uses disk arrays to emulate tape drives and libraries
C. supports file, email, and database data types
D. drives business strategy and business processes infrastructure
E. creates an environment where IT supply meets business demand
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Which offerings ate supported by HP, but not by either EMC or IBM? (Select two.)
A. managed services
B. adaptive infrastructure
C. network management
D. servers
E. unified server and storage management
Answer: B,E

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NO.3 Your team is developing new sales leads. It is suggested that utility ready storage opportunities in
existing accounts might be a good area in which to develop some of these leads. Which customer
situations can help your team qualify utility ready storage leads? (Select two.)
A. customers who are experiencing a slow procurement process
B. customers who are increasing their IT budgets
C. customers who are operating enterprise level data centers with homogeneous storage
D. customers with minimal growth who are operating non-critical database applications
E. customers who do not require Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
F. customers who are trying to control storage costs during cyclical seasons
Answer: A,F

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NO.4 DRAG DROP
Match each element of effective business value propositions to the role with which it is associated.
Answer:

NO.5 A customer fails to deliver on service level agreements due to lack of storage resources. Which solution
should you suggest to address this issue?
A. Utility Ready Storage
B. Mission Critical Services
C. 24¡Á7 Care Pack
D. ILM Data and Information Discovery Service
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which questions are appropriate for exploring data archiving opportunities with customers? (Select
two.)
A. How do you mitigate risk while addressing compliance with relevant data retention regulations?
B. How do you find and retrieve archived information in a timely manner?
C. How would your business benefit from connecting your Windows-based server/client
environment with UNIX, Novell, or MAC server/clients?
D. How would reduced downtime during storage expansion and faster application deployment affect your
competitive edge?
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 An EVA4000 customer experiences shrinking backup windows and wants to know how to know how to
back up data without impacting application processing. Which HP Storage Works EVA software creates
snapshots or clones that can be used to run automated backup from within the customer's backup
software?
A. Business Copy EVA
B. Data Replication Manager EVA
C. MPIO for Windows
D. Continuous Access EVA
Answer: A

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NO.8 A market segment predicted to show the greatest growth over the next several years is enterprise
storage resource management. You and your team decide to take advantage of this information and
target opportunities for selling HP Storage Essentials SRM Software. Which customer profiles suggest
potential sales opportunities for this product? (Select two.)
A. manage storage devices from more than one vendor
B. provide continuous access between arrays
C. have storage growth that has outpaced budget and headcount
D. transfer data between storage tiers
E. need rapid recovery of archived email
Answer: A,C

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NO.9 You are in the process of qualifying a customer opportunity for storage solutions. Which steps should
you complete during this selling stage? (Select two.)
A. Create an account plan.
B. Define and document the customer's requirements.
C. Identify the customer's strategic IT and business initiatives.
D. Confirm sponsorship.
E. Track solution benefits with the customer.
Answer: B,D

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NO.10 You are meeting with a business executive to discuss HP storage solutions. Which business value
factors should you emphasize when discussing the executive's IT investment decisions? (Select three.)
A. reduced operational costs
B. improved service levels
C. operating system support
D. time-to-market
E. expanded disk capacity
F. increased bandwidth
Answer: A,B,D

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Exam Code: HP2-Z04
Exam Name: HP (Building HP ProCurve Campus LANs)
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Total Q&A: 101 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 You have created a port trunk consisting of three links between two HP ProCurve switches: Switch A
and Switch B. When Device C sends a packet to Server D, Switch A forwards the packet over link 1 in the
trunk. Which statement is true about how Switch A will transmit the next packet between Device C and
Server D?
A. It will send the packet over link 1 unless link 1 has reached the congestion threshold.
B. It will send the packet over link 2 or link 3.
C. It will send the packet over any of the three links, selected randomly.
D. It will send the packet over link 1.
Answer: B

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NO.2 .An IT manager wants to form a dynamic LACP trunk between two switches to increase bandwidth in
the network. What are valid configurations for achieving this goal? (Select two.)
A. Switch 1 ports = LACP Passive; Switch 2 ports = LACP Passive
B. Switch 1 ports = LACP Active; Switch 2 ports = LACP Active
C. Switch 1 ports = LACP Active; Switch 2 ports = LACP Passive
D. Switch 1 ports = HP Trunking; Switch 2 ports = LACP trunking
E. Switch 1 ports = 100FDx; Switch 2 ports = 1000FDx
Answer: B, C

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NO.3 A router has several interfaces that are all in the same OSPF areas. You want the router to receive a
default route and summary routes but no routes that have been redistributed into OSPF from another
routing method. How should you define the router's OSPF area?
A. Stub Area
B. Not-So-Stubby Area
C. transit Area
D. type 3 area
Answer: A

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NO.4 You are running Secure Shell (SSH) on your HP ProCurve switch, and you want to authenticate the
device that you use to manage the switch using the SSH-Client-Public-Key method. What must you do?
A. Generate a public and private key pair on the client, copying the client private key to the switch.
B. Generate a public and private key pair on the switch.
C. Copy the switch public and private key pair to the client.
D. Generate a public and private key pair on the client, copying the public key to the switch.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which parameter should you configure on an Autonomous System Border Router (ASBR) to allow it to
produce special Link State Advertisements (LSAs) that advertise external routes in a stub area?
A. Not-So-Stubby Area
B. Static Route Mapping
C. Stub Area
D. Backup Designated Router
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is achieved by a shared secret, configured on both the RADIUS server and the RADIUS client?
(Select two.)
A. It defines the authentication domain.
B. It authenticates the server and client to each other.
C. It sets the password for users allowed to connect to the network.
D. It sets the password for switch managers.
E. It verifies the integrity of RADIUS messages. placed in blocking
Answer: B, E

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NO.7 You want a ProCurve switch to send SNMPv2c traps to a management station. What must you
configure? (Select two.)
A. the correct SNMP encryption password
B. the IP address of the host that will receive the traps
C. SNMP Read/Write access to the host that will receive the traps
D. the correct SNMP username and password for the host that will receive the traps
E. the SNMP community string of the host that will receive the traps
Answer: B, E

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NO.8 You want to establish a WAN connection using an X.21 cable. What is the correct Layer 2 protocol to
configure on your router to support this connection?
A. ATM
B. Frame Relay
C. HDLC
D. PPPoE
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is the maximum number of untagged VLAN assignments on each port of an HP ProCurve Switch
3500yl-24PoE?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 10
D. the number set with the max-VLANs command
Answer: A

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NO.10 Your company's security policies require managers to use HTTPS to access Web browser interfaces
of infrastructure products. Which tasks must you complete on each product? (Select two.)
A. Generate a self-signed server certificate for HTTPS.
B. Install a server certificate for HTTPS obtained from a Certificate Authority.
C. Install a client certificate for HTTPS obtained from a Certificate Authority.
D. Generate a certificate revocation list for HTTPS.
E. Generate an HTTPS client certificate.
Answer: A, B

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NO.11 A multicast packet is received on a switch in a VLAN that does not have IGMP enabled. How is the
packet handled?
A. The packet is flooded to a subset of the hosts on the VLAN, based on the source IP address of the
multicast stream.
B. The packet is transmitted on all ports that belong to the VLAN.
C. Because the routing interface for the VLAN has no way of resolving which hosts on the VLAN wish to
join the multicast, the packet is dropped.
D. Because the switch has no way of resolving which hosts on the VLAN wish to join the multicast, the
packet is flooded to all Rendezvous Points for proper routing.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which security technology in Internet Key Exchange (IKE) allows endpoints to generate secure keys
without agreeing to them beforehand?
A. AES
B. Diffie-Hellman
C. RSA
D. HMAC
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which type of OSPF Link State Advertisement (LSA) does an Area Border Router (ABR) send into one
area to advertise a summary route to all networks in another area?
A. type 5
B. type 3
C. type 2
D. type 1
Answer: B

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NO.14 You have configured values for the Tunnel-Type, Tunnel-Pvt-Group-ID, and Tunnel-Medium-Type
attributes in a policy on your RADIUS server. Which dynamic setting(s)
have you created?
A. dynamic ACL only
B. dynamic VLAN only
C. dynamic rate limit only
D. dynamic rate limit and dynamic VLAN
E. dynamic ACL and dynamic VLAN
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which statement is correct about security technology implemented in SNMPv3?
A. SNMPv3 applies authentication keys and algorithms to management traffic so that the recipient can
verify that packets have not been tampered with.
B. SNMPv3 utilizes symmetric cryptography, which uses a pair of mathematically related hash functions
to encrypt and decrypt messages.
C. SNMPv3 uses hash functions and encryption algorithms such as MD5 and SHA-1.
D. When using the AES algorithm with SNMPv3, it produces a larger message digest than the DES
algorithm.
Answer: A

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NO.16 You are attempting to estimate the range of your wireless access point's signal. Which factors affect
the Effective Isotropic Radiated Power (EIRP) of its radio?
A. data rate and signal attenuation
B. cable loss and antenna gain
C. traffic patterns and antenna gain
D. transmit power and signal attenuation
Answer: B

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NO.17 Your network includes only one DHCP server, which is in a different VLAN from many DHCP clients.
Which statement is true about configuring a DHCP Helper address on the DHCP clients' VLANs?
A. The DHCP Helper address converts the VLAN tag of the client's broadcasts to allow the DHCP server
to assign the correct unicast IP address.
B. The DHCP Helper address is not required because switches automatically forward DHCP requests to
the appropriate DHCP servers.
C. The DHCP Helper includes a list of addresses that the switch assigns to clients in unicast DHCP
replies.
D. For the DHCP clients' broadcasts to reach the server, the switch must translate them to traffic directed
to the DHCP helper address.
Answer: D

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NO.18 What does Secure Shell (SSH) use to conceal the content management traffic from eavesdroppers?
A. asymmetric cryptography
B. symmetric cryptography
C. message authentication codes
D. username and password authentication
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which value composes the unique byte of a Master VRRP router's MAC address?
A. the default priority of the original VRRP Master
B. a random number between 1-255 that is generated when the VRRP instance is created
C. the Master's loopback address
D. the ID associated with the VRRP instance
Answer: D

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NO.20 What must be enabled on a Cisco switch for Cisco PVST+ to interoperate with ProCurve devices
running 802.1s (MSTP) spanning tree?
A. VLAN 4096
B. the native VLAN
C. PVST+ compatibility mode
D. 802.1s (MSTP) compatibility mode
E. VLAN 1
Answer: E

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Exam Code: HP3-031
Exam Name: HP (HP LaserJet 3000 and 3380/90 AIO series)
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Total Q&A: 28 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 A customer calls because he has been unable to install the software for this all-in-one device. He is
running Windows 2000 as a client.
What do you tell the customer?
A. The all-in-one device does not support Windows 2000.
B. The all-one-device supports only Windows 2000 Server.
C. The all-in-one device must be installed by a member of an IT department.
D. The person installing the all-in-one device must have administrative privileges to install the software.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What allows remote status and diagnostics of HP LaserJet 3055 for multiple users?
A. Toolbox FX
B. Embedded Web Server
C. Printer Driver
D. Send Fax Utility
Answer: A

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NO.3 What three areas of the scanning mechanism have been improved to result in faster scan speed?
A. firmware, software, and hardware
B. power save mode, wake-up time, and formatter
C. firmware, HP LaserJet scan software, and scanner bulb warm up time
D. scanner head start position, scanner bulb warm-up time, and firmware
Answer: A

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NO.4 When should a customer run the scrubber?
A. only with a failed software-first installation
B. only with a failed hardware-first installation
C. for either a failed software-first or hardware-first installation
D. never, for use by authorized personnel only
Answer: B

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NO.5 How should you install an HP LaserJet 3015, 3020, 3030, and 3380 all-in-one device self-tapping
screw?
A. First turn the screw counterclockwise to align it with the existing threads. Then turn it clockwise to
tighten.
B. Use a flathead screwdriver to tighten the screw until it is flush against the side of the all-in-one device.
C. Use a #2 Philips head screwdriver to tighten the screw as tightly as you can, Over-tightening of this
type of screw is impossible.
D. Use aTorx head screwdriver to tighten the screw as tightly as you can. Over-tightening of this type of
screw is impossible.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-Y23
Exam Name: HP (Deploying HP ProCurve Products )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 You must configure an IP interface on an HP ProCurve switch. Which CLI context will enable you to
perform this task?
A.router
B.manager
C.CLI passthrough
D.VLAN
Answer: D

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NO.2 You must configure an IP interface for VLAN 22 on an HP ProCurve switch. Besides the IP address,
which parameter is required?
A.subnet mask
B.DNS server
C.default gateway
D.port members
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which privilege level is indicated by the following prompt at the CLI of an HP ProCurve switch?
3500yl-24G>
A.operator
B.interface
C.global configuration
D.manager
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which options are available at the following prompt in the CLI of an HP ProCurve 3500yl switch?
(Select three.)
3500yl-24G#
A.enable IP routing
B.update switch software
C.disable ports
D.erase startup configuration
E.define management passwords
F.restart the switch
G.assign IP address to VLAN interface
Answer: BDF

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NO.5 What is the effect of the following command issued at the CLI of an HP ProCurve 5406zl switch?
5406zl# configure terminal
A.The CLI moves to the global configuration context.
B.The CLI provides an interface for configuring persistent terminal variables such as line length.
C.The CLI displays user input in the terminal.
D.The CLI displays current configuration parameters.
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the effect of the following command entered at the CLI of an HP ProCurve switch with factory
default settings?
ProCurveSwitch# exit
A.All switch ports are enabled.
B.The user is logged out of the CLI.
C.The privilege level moves from Manager to Operator.
D.The CLI displays an authentication prompt.
Answer: C

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NO.7 You must define a hostname on an HP ProCurve 5406zl switch. Which configuration context must you
enter to perform this task?
A.interface
B.global configuration
C.manager
D.operator
Answer: B

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NO.8 What can be used as a destination when backing up the configuration on an HP ProCurve 3500yl
switch? (Select two.)
A.TFTP server
B.compact flash
C.neighboring switch
D.USB flash drive
E.FTP server
Answer: AD

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NO.9 Besides the CLI, which configuration interface enables an administrator to configure a user name for
access to the Manager privilege level on an HP ProCurve switch?
A.menu interface
B.web interface
C.setup interface
D.Management Interface Wizard
Answer: B

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NO.10 You must configure an HP ProCurve 3500yl switch for installation in a network that uses RSTP to form
a single-instance Spanning Tree. What must you do to ensure that the 3500yl will participate in this
Spanning Tree?
A.Enter spanning-tree in the global configuration context.
B.Enter spanning-tree rstp in the configuration context for every VLAN the switch shares with another
switch.
C.Enter spanning-tree protocol-version rstp in the Spanning Tree configuration context.
D.Enter spanning-tree autodetect in the configuration context of every port where the switch will hear
Spanning Tree BPDUs.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-J38
Exam Name: HP (Designing and Implementing HP Enterprise Backup Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 85 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 You are implementing an ESL E-Series tape library. What is the maximum number of drives supported
per drive cluster?
A.2
B.4
C.8
D.16
Answer: B

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NO.2 To protect against data loss, companies must develop and follow backup and restore
strategies. Which questions can be used to determine the approporiate backup strategy?
(Select three.)
A.What is the size of the restore window?
B.Where is the data located?
C.Which type of tape device is used?
D.Is full or partial backup required?
E.Which type of storage is used?
F.Is the data image based or file based?
Answer: A, D, F

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NO.3 What is the difference between a normal full backup and a copy full backup?
A.A normal full backup backs up files and resets the archive bit. A copy full backup does not.
B.A normal full backup always uses the last access time to determine if the file needs backing up. The
copy full backup uses the archive bit.
C.A copy full backup is a replica of a normal full backup.
D.A copy full backup is image based. A normal full backup is file based.
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the expected growth rate of the Storage Media Operations database?
A.100MB for every 2000 tapes
B.100MB for every 10,000 tapes
C.1GB for every 1000 tapes
D.2GB for every 10,000 tapes
Answer: B

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NO.5 You are proposing a disaster tolerant solution to your customer. Which factors should you consider
when estimating the cost of data loss? (Select three.)
A.size of the backup and restore window
B.type of backup, image based or file based
C.cost of downtime while recreating data
D.ability to recreate the data
E.effect on customer and supplier satisfaction
F.average amount of lost data
Answer: C, D, E

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